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1. Light passing through a transparent medium has a wavelength of 466 nm and a frequency of 6.20 × 1014 s-1. What is the speed of the light in the medium?

A) 2.89 × 108 m/s B) 2.89 × 1017 m/s C) 1.33 × 1012 m/s D) 1.33 × 1021 m/s E) 7.52 × 10-22 m/s

2. What is the frequency associated with radiation of 4.59 × 10-8 cm wavelength?

A) 6.54 × 1017 s-1 B) 6.54 × 1015 s-1 C) 1.53 × 10-8 s-1 D) 13.8 s-1 E) 2.18 × 107 s-1

3. What is the wavelength in nm associated with radiation of frequency 2.8 × 1013 s-1?

A) 840 nm B) 2.8 × 104 nm C) 299 nm D) 9.3 × 104 nm E) 1.1 × 104 nm

4. Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning electromagnetic radiation.

A) Infrared light has a longer wavelength than ultraviolet light.

B) The greater the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation, the greater the energy of the radiation.

C) A photon with a wavelength of 5000 Angstroms has one-half as much energy as a photon with a wavelength of 2500 Angstroms.

D) The speed of ultraviolet light rays is faster than X-rays in a vacuum.

E) Electromagnetic radiation is energy transmission in which electric and magnetic fields are propagated as waves.

5. Determine the energy, in J/photon, of radiation of frequency 5.8 × 1015 s-1.

A) 3.8 × 10-18 J B) 1.7 × 1024 J C) 5.8 × 10-25 J D) 1.7 × 10-16 J E) 5.2 × 10-8 J

6. How many photons of light with frequency 5.50 × 1015 Hz are required to provide 1 kJ of energy?

A) 3.64 × 10-18 photons B) 2.74 × 1020 photons C) 4.56 × 10-4 photons D) 1.65 × 1044 photons

E) 3.64 × 10-16 photons

7. The symbol “n” in quantum numbers refers to:

A) the energy of the electrons. B) the total energy of the atom. C) the number of electrons in an energy level. D) the energy level in which an electron is found. E) the number of orbits in an atom.

8. When an electron in an atom goes from a high energy state to a low one, what occurs?

A) Another electron goes from a low energy state to a high one. B) The atom moves faster.

C) Energy is given off. D) This process is not possible. E) Energy is absorbed.

9. What is the wavelength of a ball that is 25.0 g traveling at 40.2 m/s?

A) 6.59 × 10-37 m B) 6.59 × 10-34 m C) 1.07 × 10-30 m D) 4.12 × 10-37 m E) 2.42 × 10-11 m

10. What is the wavelength, in nm, associated with a 2000. kg truck traveling at a speed of 20 m/s, that is, considering the truck to be a “matter” wave?

A) 1.33 × 10-29 nm B) 2.65 × 10-29 nm C) 6.02 × 10-29 nm D) 7.50 × 103 nm E) 1.66 × 10-29 nm

11. An atomic orbital represents:

A) the shape of an atom

B) the repulsion of all the electrons among themselves

C) a fixed path that an electron follows around the nucleus of an atom

D) the region of electron density for a covalent bond

E) the region of high probability for an electron around the nucleus of an atom

12. Which of the following is not possible?

A) 2p B) 4d C) 5p D) 3f E) 2s

13. The possible values of the angular momentum quantum number of a 3p electron are:

A) +1/2, -1/2 B) -1, 0, +1 C) -1 D) 0 E) 1

14. The possible values of the magnetic quantum number, mâ„“ , of a 3p electron are:

A) 0, 1, 2 B) 2, 1, 0, -1, -2 C) 0 D) -1, 0, +1 E) +1, -1

15. Give the appropriate values of n and â„“ for the orbital designation 3p.

A) n = 3, â„“ = 0 B) n = 1, â„“ = 3 C) n = 3, â„“ = 3 D) n = 3, â„“ = 1 E) n = 3, â„“ = 2

16. What is the smallest acceptable value for the missing quantum number?

n = ?, â„“ = 2, mâ„“ = 0, ms = +1/2

A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 1

17. What is the orbital designation for the quantum numbers n = 2, â„“ = 1?

A) 3s B) 2s C) 2d D) 2p E) 3p

18. All of the terms below are quantum numbers EXCEPT:

A) principal B) magnetic C) spin D) valence E) orbital angular momentum

19. Which of the following statements concerning quantum numbers is NOT correct?

A) “n” relates the most probable distance from the nucleus.

B) “l” denotes geometric shape.

C) “m” denotes orientation of an orbital with respect to the others.

D) The fourth quantum number refers to electron spin.

E) The four quantum numbers are derived from wave mechanics

20. Orbitals with the same energy:

I) extend the same distance from the nucleus.

II) have the same principle quantum number, n.

III) are referred to as iso-electronic.

IV) are referred to as degenerate.

V) are represented by 1s and 2s orbitals.

A) I, III, IV

B) I, II, IV

C) I, IV, V

D) I, II, III

E) I, II, III, and IV

21. Which one of the following set of quantum numbers would not be allowed?

A) n = 3, â„“ = 2, mâ„“ = 1

B) n = 3, â„“ = 0, mâ„“ = 0

C) n = 3, â„“ = 3, mâ„“ = 1

D) n = 3, â„“ = 2, mâ„“ = -1

E) n = 3, â„“ = 1, mâ„“ = -1

22. Which of the following statements about the electron spin quantum number is FALSE?

A) ms denotes the spin quantum number.

B) The value of the spin quantum number can be +1/2 or -1/2.

C) The value of the spin quantum number does not depend on other quantum numbers.

D) The value of the spin quantum number can be indicated by arrows to the right and to the left.

E) The spin quantum number is an indication that electrons generate a magnetic field.

23. What is an acceptable value for the missing quantum number?

n = 4, â„“ = 2, mâ„“ = 0, ms = ?

A) 0 B) 1/2 C) 1 D) 2 E) 3/2

24. Which of the following sublevels is correctly designated?

A) 1p5 B) 3s3 C) 3f2 D) 4d11 E) 2p6

25. The quantum numbers of the last electron of arsenic could be:

A) n = 4, â„“ = 2, mâ„“ = 1, ms = 1/2

B) n = 4, â„“ = 1, mâ„“ = 1, ms = 1/2

C) n = 3, â„“ = 1, mâ„“ = 1, ms = 1/2

D) n = 4, â„“ = 3, mâ„“ = 1, ms = 1/2

E) n = 4, â„“ = 1, mâ„“ = 1/2, ms = 0

26. The quantum numbers of the last electron of nickel could be:

A) n = 3, â„“ = 2, mâ„“ = 0, ms = 1/2

B) n = 4, â„“ = 2, mâ„“ = 0, ms = 1/2

C) n = 3, â„“ = 1, mâ„“ = 0, ms = 1/2

D) n = 3, â„“ = 2, mâ„“ = 0, ms = 0

E) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = 1/2, ms = ½

27. Chlorine (atomic number = 17) has the electronic configuration: ________.

A) 1s22s22p63s23d5 B)1s22s22p62d53s2 C) 1s22s22p63s23p5 D) 1s22s22d103s2 E) 1s22s22p62d63s1

28. The transition elements refer to what group of elements?

A) s-block elements B) d-block elements C) actinides D) lanthanides E) p-block elements

29. Which of the following could never be isoelectronic species?

A) anions of two different elements

B) cations of two different elements

C) an anion and a cation

D) an anion and an atom

E) atoms of two different elements

30. The ion represented as Ti+4 has:

A) 22 electrons

B) 48 neutrons

C) 26 protons

D) 4 3d electrons

E) 0 4s electrons

31. The similar chemical behavior of the elements in a given group in the periodic table is best accounted for by the fact that atoms of these elements have:

A) the same number of isotopes

B) the same number of electrons

C) the same number of electrons in the outermost (valence) shell

D) similar nuclear structures

E) the same number of protons

32. What is the ground state electron configuration for iron(III)?

A) [Ar]3d5

B) [Ar]4s23d3

C) [Ar]4s13d4

D) [Ar]4s24p3

E) [Ar]4p5

33. What is the general electronic configuration (where n = principal quantum number) that best describes group 17?

A) ns1np6 B) ns2np4 C) ns2sp5 D) ns2np6 E) ns2np3

34. Which ground state electronic configuration will most readily produce an ion with a charge of 2+?

A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s2

B) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1

C) 1s22s22p63s23p4

D) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p2

E) 1s2s22p63s23p63d104s24p6

35. Which of the following has the largest radius?

A) Cl-1 B) Ar C) Sc+3 D) K+1 E) P-3

36. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A) The atomic radius decreases from left to right through a period of elements.

B) Cations are larger than the atoms from which they are formed.

C) The metallic character of elements decreases from left to right through a period of elements.

D) The ionization energy increases from left to right through a period of elements.

E) The atomic radius increases down the periodic table.

37. Most transition elements form some monatomic ions that are not:

A) isoelectronic with any other cations

B) isoelectronic with any noble gas

C) isoelectronic with any neutral atom

D) isoelectronic with any other species

E) isoelectronic with any other transition metal ion

38. Which of the following has the largest atomic radius?

A) Rb B) Br C) Mo D) I

39. A is the sequence Na, Mg, Al, Si, and P. B is the sequence He, Ne, Ar, Kr, and Xe. Which statement below is true?

A) The members of A are decreasing in size.

B) The members of B have larger radii than those of A, respectively. That is He > Na, Ne > Mg, etc.

C) The members of A have larger radii than those of B, respectively.

D) The members of B are decreasing in size.

E) All the members of A are isoelectronic.

40. Among the Group 2 metals, cesium reacts more rapidly than sodium because:

A) cesium has more electrons

B) cesium has more neutrons

C) the valence electron of cesium is at a greater average distance from the nucleus

D) cesium has a higher atomic weight

E) cesium has more protons

41. Which comparison of atomic and/or ionic radii is correct?

A) K+1 > K B) K+1 > Ca+2 C) Si > S D) Kr > Xe E) Cl > Cl-1

42. Which of the following has the largest radius?

A) As-3 B) Br C) Sr+2 D) Cl-1 E) Se-2

43. Which of the following occurs for the representative elements going left to right across the period?

A) Electronegativity becomes more positive.

B) Atomic size increases.

C) Forces of attraction between electron and nucleus increase because nuclear charge increases.

D) The outer electrons are held more weakly.

E) none of these

44. Which series of elements shows the smallest difference in atomic radii?

A) Li……F B) Be……Ra C) He……Xe D) C……Pb E) Sc……Zn

45. Choose the INCORRECT statement.

A) Within a given sublevel, each orbital is usually occupied by a single electron before any orbital has two electrons.

B) When a metallic element unites with a nonmetallic element, electrons are lost by atoms of the metal and gained by atoms of the nonmetals.

C) The noble gas atoms complete the filling of the p orbitals or outer energy level.

D) The ionization energy of Ca+1 is greater than that for Ca+2.

E) Ba+2 is smaller than Ba+1

46. Choose the species from which one electron could most easily be removed.

A) Cl B) K+1 C) K D) Ca+1 E) Ar

47. Which comparison of ionization energies is correct?

A) Cs > Na B) Na > Mg C) Ca > Mg D) Ca+1> Ca E) Ar > He

48. The first ionization potential for S is lower than the first ionization potential for P because:

A) Hund’s rule is violated

B) P has a p3 configuration

C) ionization potentials decrease across a representative period

D) P is to the right of S on the periodic table

E) P is below S on the periodic table

49. What is the relationship between ionization energy and atomic radii?

A) Energy increases as radii increase.

B) Energy is negative for all large radii.

C) Energy decreases as radii decrease.

D) Energy decreases even if radii do not change.

E) Energy increases as as radii decrease

50. Which of the following elements is likely to have the largest second ionization energy?

A) Na B) Mg C)Al D) Si

51. Which of the following has the smallest second ionization energy?

A) Si B) Mg C) Al D) P

52. Why is the electron affinity so positive for the noble gas elements?

A) The added electron would have to go into a new energy level.

B) The added electron would have to be added into the half-filled p sublevel.

C) The added electron would have to be added into the p sublevel.

D) The noble gas elements are diatomic elements.

E) Electrons can’t be added to gases.

53. Why is the electron affinity so positive for the group 2 elements?

A) The added electron would have to go into a new level.

B) The added electron would have to be added into the half-filled p sublevel.

C) The added electron would have to be added into the p sublevel.

D) The groups 2 elements are diatomic elements.

E) Electrons can’t be added to gases

54. Why is the electron affinity so positive for the group 12 elements?

A) The added electron would have to go into a new shell.

B) The added electron would have to be added into the half-filled p subshell.

C) The added electron would have to be added into the p subshell.

D) The groups 12 elements are diatomic elements.

E) Electrons can’t be added to gases.

55. What is the general relationship between electron affinity and atomic radii?

A) Electron affinity becomes more negative as radii increases.

B) Electron affinity becomes more negative as radii decreases.

C) Electron affinity becomes positive as radii decreases.

D) Electron affinity becomes positive as radii increases.

E) The two quantities are unrelated

56. Which of the following has the greatest number of unpaired electrons?

A) Cr+2 B) Ti++3 C) Co+2 D) Ni

57. List in order of increasing charge of the most common ion:

S, Na, F, Ca, Al

A) S-2, Na-1, F+1, Ca+2, Al+3

B) Ca-2, F-1, Al+1, Na+2, S+3

C) F-2, S-1, Ca+1, Al+2, Na+3

D) S-2, F-1, Na+1, Ca+2, Al+3

E) Al-2, Ca-1, F+1, Na+2, S+3

58. The number of valence electrons for atomic potassium is ________.

A) 1 B)5 C) 6 D) 15 E) 19

59. If the formula of an oxide is X2O3, what is the formula of the chloride of X?

A) XCl B) X3C C) XCl3 D) XCl6 E) X2Cl3

60. List in order of increasing atomic size: F, Na, K, Mg, Ne.

A) K < Mg < Ne < Na < F

B) Ne < Mg < K < Na < F

C) Ne < F < Mg < Na < K

D) Mg < F < Ne < Na < K

E) K < Na < Mg < F < Ne

61. Which of the following atoms has the smallest atomic radius: Br, K, Fe, Cu, Bi?

A) Br B) K C) Fe D) Cu E) Bi

62. List in order of increasing size: Cl-, Ar, K+, S2-, Ca2+.

A) Ca+2 < K+1 < Ar < Cl-1 < S-2

B) S-2 < Cl-1 < Ar < K+1 < Ca+2

C) Ca+2 < S-2 < K+1 < Ar < Cl-1

D) Cl-1 < Ar < K+1 < S-2 < Ca+2

E) K+1 < S-2 < Ar < Cl-1< Ca+2

63. List in order of increasing atomic size: Sr, Se, Cs, Ga, In.

A) Se < Ga < In < Sr < Cs

B) Ga < In < Se < Cs < Sr

C) Sr < In < Ga < Se < Cs

D) In < Ga < Cs < Se < Sr

E) Cs < Ga < Se < Sr < In

64. List in order of increasing ionization energy: Na, K, F, Mg, Ne.

A) Na < K < F < Ne < Mg

B) K < Na < Mg < F < Ne

C) Ne < Mg < F < K < Na

D) F < Mg < Ne < K < Na

E) Ne < Na < Mg < F < K

65. The energy difference between atomic cesium and its most stable ion, in the gaseous state, is referred to as ________.

A) atomic energy

B) electron affinity

C) entropy of vaporization

D) ionization energy

E) magnetic moment

66. Which of the following has the highest first ionization energy: K, Ge, Kr, Ca, Br?

A) K B) Ge C) Kr D) Ca E) Br

67. List in order of increasing ionization energy: O, Mg, Rb, S, Si.

A) Si < O < Mg < Rb < S

B) Si < S < Rb < Mg < O

C) Mg < O < Rb < S < Si

D) Rb < Mg < Si < S < O

E) S < Si < Mg < O < Rb

68. List in order of more negative electron affinity: F, Br, Sb, Rb, Se.

(more positive → more negative)

A) Br < Se < Sb < Rb < F

B) Se < Rb < Sb < Br < F

C) Sb < Br < Rb < Se < F

D) Br < F < Rb < Sb < Se

E) Rb < Sb < Se < Br < F

69. Which of the following has the most negative electron affinity: Li, Be, N, O, F?

A) Li B) Be C) N D) O E) F

70. Which of the following has the most unpaired electrons: Na, Mn2+, S, N, Ar?

A) Na B) Mn+2 C) S D) N E) Ar

71. List in order of increasing number of unpaired electrons: N, Na, Si, Cr, Ar.

A) Cr < Si < Na < N < Ar

B) Ar < Cr < N < Na < Si

C) Ar < Cr < Si < Na < N

D) N < Na < Cr < Si < Ar

E) Ar < Na < Si < N < Cr

72. Which of the following has the largest number of unpaired electrons: S, Cr+2, N, K, Ne?

A) S B) Cr+2 C) N D) K E) Ne

73. Find statements describing the trends in the chemical behavior of the elements:

I) The atomic size within a period of the periodic table decreases from left to right.

II) Metallic character increases within a period from right to left.

III) Basic oxides are formed by the elements near the end of each period.

IV) The tendency to lose electrons is greater among the elements of Group 1 than in Group 13.

V) Ionization energy increases as atomic size decreases.

A) I, II, III, IV B) II, III, IV, V C) I, II, IV, V D) I, II, III, V E) I, III, IV, V

74. Ions always adopt the electron configuration of a nobel gas.

A) True B) False

75. The electron affinity is the energy for an atom in its standard state to gain an electron.

A) True B) False

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